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A' a Hindu who is separated from his father 'B', sells to 'C' three houses 'X', 'Y and 'Z', representing that 'A' was authorized to transfer the same, 'Y' however does not belong to 'A', it having being retained by 'B' on partition; but on 'B's dying 'A' as heir obtains 'Y'. Here, can 'C' file a suit requiring 'A' to deliver 'Y' to him?

A. Yes, if the contract still subsists

B. Only if 'A' was the authorized owner of 'Y' at the time of entering into the agreement to sell with 'C'

C. Only if 'A' has not leased out the property

D. None of the above

Answer: Option A


This Question Belongs to Law >> Transfer Of Property Act

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