A man and a woman, both Muslims, get married under the classical Muslim law and then get their marriage registered under the Special Marriage Act, 1954. A year later, the husband pronounces Talaq on his wife and gets married a second time:
Under classical Muslim law, a husband has the right to pronounce talaq (divorce) and dissolve the marriage. However, when a marriage is registered under the Special Marriage Act, 1954, the provisions of that act come into effect. The Special Marriage Act provides for a secular marriage and does not recognize the unilateral right of talaq.
In this scenario, when the husband pronounces talaq on his wife and subsequently gets married a second time, the second marriage would be considered void. This is because the right of talaq is not available to the husband under the Special Marriage Act, and the act does not recognize the validity of such unilateral divorce.
Therefore, the correct answer is: C. The second marriage is void as the right of talaq is not available to the husband
Please note that legal interpretations may vary, and it is recommended to consult a legal professional for precise advice in specific cases.
Marriage of a Sunni boy with Hindu girl in the Muslim form is