The expression $${\text{V}} = \int_0^{\text{H}} {\pi {{\text{R}}^2}{{\left( {1 - \frac{{\text{h}}}{{\text{H}}}} \right)}^2}} {\text{dh}}$$ for the volume of a cone is equal to
A. $$\int_0^{\text{R}} {\pi {{\text{R}}^2}{{\left( {1 - \frac{{\text{h}}}{{\text{H}}}} \right)}^2}} {\text{dr}}$$
B. $$\int_0^{\text{R}} {\pi {{\text{R}}^2}{{\left( {1 - \frac{{\text{h}}}{{\text{H}}}} \right)}^2}} {\text{dh}}$$
C. $$\int_0^{\text{H}} {2\pi {\text{rH}}{{\left( {1 - \frac{{\text{r}}}{{\text{R}}}} \right)}^2}} {\text{dh}}$$
D. $$4\int_0^{\text{R}} {\pi {\text{rH}}{{\left( {1 - \frac{{\text{r}}}{{\text{R}}}} \right)}^2}} {\text{dr}}$$
Answer: Option D

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