Examveda

Which of the following statements is incorrect?

A. Under English criminal law slander has not been recognized as a criminal offence

B. In England under law of torts, both slander and libel are actionable per se, i.e., without the proof of any damage

C. In India under law of torts, both slander and libel are actionable per se, i.e., without the proof of any damage

D. Under Indian criminal law, both libel and slander are recognized as criminal offences

Answer: Option B


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