A dealer offers a cash discount of 20% and still makes a profit of 20%, when he further allows 16 articles to a dozen to a particularly sticky bargainer. How much percent above the cost price were his wares listed?
A. 100%
B. 80%
C. 75%
D. $$66\frac{2}{3}$$%
Answer: Option A
Solution(By Examveda Team)
Let the CP of the article be Rs. x, since he earns a profit of 20%, hence SP = X + 20% of X = 1.2x It is given that he incurs loss by selling 16 articles at the cost of 12 articles [loss = $$\frac{{16 - 12}}{{16}}$$ = 25%] His selling price = SP - 25% of SP = SP × 0.75 Hence, SP × 0.75 = 1.2X Or, SP = $$\frac{{1.2 \times {\text{x}}}}{{0.75}}$$ = 1.6X This SP is arrived after giving a discount of 20% on MP. Let MP = Y Y - 20% of Y = SP 0.80Y = 1.6X Y = 2X It means that the article has been marked 100% above the cost price. Or Marked Price was twice of cost price.Join The Discussion
Comments ( 5 )
Related Questions on Profit and Loss
A. 45 : 56
B. 45 : 51
C. 47 : 56
D. 47 : 51
A. Rs. 2600
B. Rs. 2700
C. Rs. 2800
D. Rs. 3000
A. A neither losses nor gains
B. A makes a profit of 11%
C. A makes a profit of 20%
D. B loses 20%
A. Rs. 3,750
B. Rs. 3,250
C. Rs. 2,750
D. Rs. 2,250
loss by selling 16 articles at the cost of 12 articles = 16-12/16 = 25%
Discount 20% + loss consider ( discount) 25%= total discount 40% and still profit 20%.
suppose, MP : 100 , SP after discount = (100-40)= 60 ,CP = 50
How much percent above the cost price were his wares listed =100-50/50 =100%
100-20=80
100+20=120
now 80*120/100=96
100-96=4%
16-12/16*100=25%
now 4%*25%=100%
CP : SP = 3 : 4 (Quantity)
CP : SP = 4 : 3 (Price)
MP*(4/5)*(3/4) = (6/5)*CP
⇒ MP : CP = 2 : 1
Above% = 1*(100/1) = 100%
M4/5*12/16=6/5C
M/c=2/1
2-1=1/1=100%
This question seems incomplete as the solution given mentions some loss on a dozen.