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Profit and Loss
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The price of an article reduces to 576 after two successive discounts. The markup is 80% above the cost price of Rs. 500. What is the new profit percentage if instead of two successive discounts the markup price was further increased successively two times by the same percentage?

Answer & Solution
Correct Answer: Option C
$$\eqalign{ & {\text{CP}} = 500 \cr & {\text{SP}} = 576 \cr & {\text{MP}} = 900\left[ {80\% \,{\text{above}}\,{\text{the}}\,{\text{CP}}} \right] \cr & {\text{Now}}, \cr & {\text{SP}} = {\text{MP}} \times {\left[ {1 - {\frac{R}{{100}}} } \right]^2} \cr & \left[ {{\text{R = Rate}}\,{\text{of}}\,{\text{Discount}}} \right] \cr & 576 = 900 \times {\left[ {1 - {\frac{R}{{100}}} } \right]^2} \cr & R = 20\% \cr & \cr & {\text{Again}}, \cr & {\text{SP}} = {\text{MP}} \times {\left[ {1 + {\frac{R}{{100}}} } \right]^2} \cr & {\text{SP}} = 900 \times {\left[ {1 + {\frac{{20}}{{100}}} } \right]^2} \cr & {\text{SP}} = 1296 \cr & {\text{New}}\,{\text{Profit}}\,{\text{Percentage}}, \cr & = {\frac{{ {SP - CP} }}{{CP}}} \times 100 \cr & = {\frac{{ {1296 - 500} }}{{500}}} \times 100 \cr & = 159.2\% \cr} $$
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1 Comment
Bhagyasri Manda
Bhagyasri Manda 8 years ago
why we take in sp formula first tym - and second tym +